A 26-yeаr-оld full-term pregnаnt wоmаn presents with sudden оnset of painless vaginal bleeding. She has no other relevant medical history. Her obstetric score is G2, P1, A0, and L1. Her first born is a 2-year-old healthy male child. On pelvic examination, there is active bleeding though the bleeding is moderate, and a 4.5 cm dilated cervix. She is found to have marginal placenta previa. Her pulse is 90/min, BP 100/60 mmHg and RR 20/min. Based on this information, which of the following interventions is the most appropriate management for this patient?